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Instrumental Music and the church's Worship to God

Question:

I respectfully am inquiring of your view concerning (not) using musical instruments during praise and worship service. Again, I am asking in total respect and am not trying to "pick a fight". However, I do not agree with that belief and would like to challenge it, so to speak. I have two (of many) points/questions I would like you to address, (please):

#1) Numerous times in the Old Testament we are told to worship with singing AND instrument. God never changes (Hebrews 13:8), so why would it be it be acceptable to God then, but not now?

#2) I am assuming you will answer question 1 by somehow stating, again, that we don't see God giving us that authority in the New Testament, but that is far from the truth. Now, stay with me, here: Colossians 3:16 tells us to admonish one another in psalms. If you look up the word "psalms" used in that verse, you may be surprised (The New Strong's Exhaustive Concordance Of The Bible. Greek Dictionary Of The New Testament #5568) That word in the Greek is "psalmos". It is defined as the following: "a set piece of music, i.e. a sacred ode (accompanied with the voice, harp, or other instrument; a `psalm')" If referring to the original language of the New Testament (Greek) isn't good enough proof, allow me to share with you the word "psalm" in Webster's Dictionary On-Line (http://www.m-w.com/cgi-bin/mweb): "noun, Middle English, from Old English psealm, from Late Latin psalmus, from Greek psalmos, literally, twanging of a harp, from psallein to pluck, play a stringed instrument."

Please, address both concerns of mine. I have given this information to people before that hold your same view. One of two things happen: 1) the person will not respond 2) the person has no answers to my questions whatsoever. Nevertheless, the person holds fast to that belief merely because it is what he/she has been taught - in spite of (what I consider) me proving that view to be wrong.

Submitted by RMB on February 21, 1998

Answer: (Given by Bro. Brian Tipton)

First, let me state that I commend you for your honesty in asking a question. I wish that men and women everywhere would question things that are taught and always strive to get to the truth that comes from God's word.

Before, I respond to your question, there is a little background information that will prove essential. The Bible is divided into Testaments for a reason. A Christian is not bound by anything under the Old Testament (the Law) as will now be shown.

In the book of Hebrews, Chapter 1, verses 1-2, the writer (probably Paul) states,

Heb 1:1-2 -- "(1) God, who at sundry times and in divers manners spake in time past unto the fathers by the prophets, (2) Hath in these last days spoken unto us by [his] Son, whom he hath appointed heir of all things, by whom also he made the worlds" - KJV

The Hebrew writer spells out for us that there existed different times and different manners in which God spoke to mankind. However, he does indicate that we are living in the last days. It seems that the concept of the last days has been confused in most peoples minds. Most people believe that the events described in Matthew, Luke and Revelation pertaining to the "Last days" pertain only to the very end of the Christian age. The book of Hebrews was written around 60-65 A.D. according to most scholars. This means that it was written approximately 30 years after Christ died on the cross. Since the writer identifies the days in which Hebrews was written as the "Last days", it is obvious to the sincere Bible student that we too are living in the last days. The term " . . . these last days" used in verse 2 of Hebrews chapter 1 indicates that this is the final period in mankind's history. No other time will occur prior to judgement.

The Hebrew writer also states that the Christian is now guided by the words of Christ, the Son of God. This statement is also supported by Col 2:14,

Col 2:14 -- Blotting out the handwriting of ordinances that was against us, which was contrary to us, and took it out of the way, nailing it to his cross; - KJV

Also,

Heb 8:13 By callings this covenant new [ the covenant is the law of Christ -bjt], he has made the first one obsolete; and what is obsolete and aging will soon disappear. - NIV

Close examination of these verses clearly illustrates that the Christian is not under the Mosaic law. When the Israelites transgressed against any one part of the law, they were guilty of the whole law. The could not keep just a portion of the law. If a Christian was still bound to the law, we would have to keep the entire law (sacrifices and all) in order not to transgress the law. However, Christ nailed that to the cross (Col 2:14) and we are now subject to his commandments.

The above is provided as background information. It is necessary to see that we are not under any part of the Mosaic law, but receive our instruction from the words spoken by Christ in the New Testament.

Now to answers your 2 points.

[#1] - Numerous times in the Old Testament we are told to worship with singing AND instrument. God never changes (heb 13:8), so why would it be it be acceptable to God then, but not now? - RMB

My first question is this: Before David, did God ever require instruments in worship to him? Did God ever require David to use instruments in worship? The answer to both questions is no. There are several things that God commanded against, but David, as well as other Old Testament characters, did contrary to God's will. Adultery and polygamy are just two as examples. David not only committed adultery (punishable by death under the law), but murdered the husband of the woman. He also had many wives (polygamy). These things are contrary to God's will. However, God tolerated them.

In Amos, Chapter 6, starting in verse 1,

Amos 6: (1) Woe to them [that are] at ease in Zion, and trust in the mountain of Samaria, [which are] named chief of the nations, to whom the house of Israel came! (2) Pass ye unto Calneh, and see; and from thence go ye to Hamath the great: then go down to Gath of the Philistines: [be they] better than these kingdoms? or their border greater than your border? (3) Ye that put far away the evil day, and cause the seat of violence to come near; (4) That lie upon beds of ivory, and stretch themselves upon their couches, and eat the lambs out of the flock, and the calves out of the midst of the stall;

And now notice verse 5,

(5) That chant to the sound of the viol, [and] invent to themselves instruments of musick, like David; (6) That drink wine in bowls, and anoint themselves with the chief ointments: but they are not grieved for the affliction of Joseph. (7) Therefore now shall they go captive with the first that go captive, and the banquet of them that stretched themselves shall be removed.

God himself says that those who, like David, invent for themselves instruments of music, will go into captivity. God never wanted instrumental music in the Old Testament. God has never wanted to be worshiped with the work of our hands. For example,

Isa 2:8 Their land also is full of idols; they worship the work of their own hands, that which their own fingers have made:

Jer 1:16 And I will utter my judgments against them touching all their wickedness, who have forsaken me, and have burned incense unto other gods, and worshipped the works of their own hands.

Jer 25:6 And go not after other gods to serve them, and to worship them, and provoke me not to anger with the works of your hands; and I will do you no hurt.

Mic 5:13 Thy graven images also will I cut off, and thy standing images out of the midst of thee; and thou shalt no more worship the work of thine hands.

These verses clearly illustrate that God considers worship with the things made by men equivalent with idolatry.

Paul states in Acts 17:30, "And the times of this ignorance God winked at; but now commandeth all men every where to repent". There were things that God chose to overlook before, but now commands all men to repent, to follow God's way.

For these reasons, as well as the fact that we are not, as Christians, bound to the law, the church cannot use the fact that David did it as authority to use instruments in worship to God today.

[#2] (See top for description)

I commend your effort to use the original Greek to establish the meaning. I think that it is great that the Bible was written in what is now a dead language. The nature and meaning of that language does not change. In Col 3:16, "psalmos" is the correct Greek word, and your rendering of the definition is likewise correct. But, taking the word
as it stands by itself outside of the text is not proof. We must look at the context of the verse, and other verses on the same matter to correctly understand the writers intention. But first, lets make sure we understand two points.

2 Timothy 3 - (16) All scripture [is] given by inspiration of God, and [is] profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness: (17) That the man of God may be perfect, thoroughly furnished unto all good works.

And,

2 Peter 1 - (21) For the prophecy came not in old time by the will of man: but holy men of God spake [as they were] moved by the Holy Ghost.

Since the Bible is truth, it cannot contradict itself. Any text that contradicts itself cannot be from God since,

I Corinthians 14:33 For God is not [the author] of confusion . . .

And,

Titus 1:2 In hope of eternal life, which God, that cannot lie, promised before the world began;

Therefore, any text, document, manuscript or personal knowledge that contradicts what the Bible says, is a lie, not truth, and is not from God.

With these ideas firmly in mind, that the Bible cannot contradict itself and that no personal knowledge should ever contradict the bible, we must examine the following two verses together.

Col 3:16 Let the word of Christ dwell in you richly in all wisdom; teaching and admonishing one another in psalms and hymns and spiritual songs, singing with grace in your hearts to the Lord.

Eph 5:19 Speaking to yourselves in psalms and hymns and spiritual songs, singing and making melody in your heart to the Lord;

In Colossians 3:16, the Greek text is "adontes en tais kardiais umon to Theo" which is literally translated , "singing in the hearts of you to God." The writer tells us to sing in our hearts to God.

If Ephesians the writer clearly states that we are to make melody in our heart while Speaking psalms and hymns, not playing them on an instrument. These verses state clearly that we are to make music in our hearts, not on instruments.

How does the bible tell us to sing? Are there specific reasons for singing?

The Bible Commands:

Speak in Song (Eph 5:19) The Voice Can An Instrument Cannot

Teach (Col 3:16) The Voice Can An Instrument Cannot

Admonish (Col 3:16) The Voice Can An Instrument Cannot

Sing with Spirit (I Cor. 14:15) The Voice Can An Instrument Cannot

Sing with Understanding (I Cor. 14:15) The Voice Can An Instrument Cannot

Make melody in your heart (Eph 5:19) The Voice Can An Instrument Cannot

In brief, the human voice is capable of doing everything which God commands us to do as music in worship, whereas, the instrument is incapable of doing anything required by Christian music except making melody. It however, does not do this in the right place, the human heart. Remember from the previous answer, God does not want to be worshiped with the things made by man's hand.

It is for these reasons that the church does not use instruments of music in worship to God. They were never commanded and are forbidden by the above verses.

From a historical note, it was not until the Catholic Pope Vitalian first introduced the organ into some services of the church in around 670 AD that instruments were used at all in the any form of church. In fact, the scholars say otherwise.

Lyman Coleman (Presbyterian Scholar) wrote, "Both the Jew in their temple service and the Greeks in their idol worship were accustomed to sing with the accompaniment of instrumental music. The converts to Christianity must have been familiar with this mode of singing, but it is generally admitted that the primitive Christians employed no instrumental music in their religious worship."

Joseph Bingham (Church of England), in his book, "Antiquities of the Church", says, "Music in the church is as ancient as the apostles; but instrumental music is not."

The Encyclopedia of Religious Knowledge, in an article by J.M. Brown, page 852, adds, "That instrumental music was not practiced by the primitive Christians. . .is evident from church history."

John Calvin, the founder of a significant strain of the reformed churches in his "Commentary on the Twenty-Third Psalm", said, "Musical Instruments in celebrating the praises of God would be no more suitable than the burning of incense, the lighting of lamps, and the restoration of other shadows of the law."

John Wesley, founder of Methodism, puts it this way, "I have no objection to the organ in our chapel, provided it is neither seen nor heard."

Both the Bible and history state that musical instruments were never used in worship to God. We must therefore conclude that instrumental music in worship is a product of man. Therefore, anyone who sincerely desires to worship God in the same manner that he wanted when he established the church in 33 AD on the day of Pentecost will seek to not use instrumental music in worship.

I hope this answers your question. I hope that if you have any additional concerns about material raised in this response, that you will ask me more questions. I will be glad to study with you more. I find that the most common thing that people struggle with is how to rectify the differences between the Old and New Testaments. I think it
would be good for us to study together the rightly divided word. If you are interested let me know. I am always happy to study with a sincere, God seeking person.

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