The Proper Definition of the Word psalmos

Question:

(NOTE: This question is based on a previously answered question. Click here to read it.  This question had two parts, this is the second, the first part will be posted later.  - The Editor)

With respect to Question #2, in which it is stated that speaking, teaching, admonishing, etc., cannot be done using instruments of music -- that is true. However, notice that the word "psalmos" was used to denote instrumentally accomapanied singing, so that using an instrument in worship woud not preclude these things from happening (teaching, etc.). You correctly state that Col 3:16 says that we are to sing in our hearts, then go on to say that this does not rule out vocal music. This same logic can be applied to "psalloing" (instrumentally accompanied singing) by which also teaching and admonishing are to be done. The historical argument has little interest to me -- using the past behavior of men to justify one's religious practice will immediately get one into trouble.

Submitted by LN on May 4, 1998

Answer: (Given by Bro. Brian Tipton)

The discussion on this topic will be around the word Psalmos. As I was thinking and reading the verses in the New Testament regarding singing (Col. 3:16, Eph. 5:19, etc.), it occured to me that if the word Psalmos can include playing an instrument (the plucking), why was it never translated that way anywhere in the New Testament? I mean if it could be translated that way (especially according to Strong), why is always traslated sing?

I do not know what your background in New Testament Greek (Koine) is, so I will provide some history of the Greek Language from the classes I have taken. In "New Testament Greek for Beginners, page 3, the author states that there are two different forms of ancient Greek. Attic Greek is the Greek language of the Illiad and the Odyssey. It is the language in which most of the so called Greek classics were written. It existed up until around 300 B.C. (It should be noted that the Old Testament Septuigant was translated using Attic Greek) From sometime after 300. B.C. to around 500 A.D. the Greek language was known world wide. It was the Koine (or "common") greek language. This is the language that was used when the inspired writers penned the books of the New Testament as we know them today. As with any living language, words change their meanings as they are used. Even though both Attic and Koine Greek are dead languages to us (their meanings do not change) to the New Testamnet writers, Koine was alive and Attic was dead. The Koine word for something did not necessarily mean the same thing the Attic word did. The New Testament authors used the Koine meaning, not the Attic (much like we do not use Old English definitions and spellings in our modern letters, writings, and speech.)

It was for this reason, I obtained a more thorough Greek-English Lexicon. Strong made a valiant attempt, but it falls far short of being complete. Take for example the word "eis" (Strong # 1519). Strong attempts to give most of the definitions, but does not tell you when to translate the word in which way. There are specific structures that allow the translator to know assuredly which form it must take. Thayer's Greek-English Lexicon, 1981 ed., gives 6 pages (very small print) to properly define the nature of the pronoun "eis". He also gives the time period, whether the Attic or Koine period of the word's usage. So now, let's examine the word psalmos (#5567).

Thayer gives many definitions and uses of the word Psalmos. The first is "to pluck off, to pull out the hair". Even at first glance we both know that this is not the definition we need, but we must ask why is the word defined in this way. This particular meaning of Psalmos is attributed (by Thayer) to Aeschylus between the years 525 and 426 B.C. This is obviously not the definition to what the Apostle Paul wrote in the early first century. The next definition is, "to cause to vibrate by touching, to twang, to touch or strike the chord, to twang the strings of a musical instrument, to play a stringed instrument". This definition is attributed to Aristotle around 384 B.C. This, too, was a change in definition of a word, still during the Attic greek. (This is the word used in the Greek Septuigant to refer to David's playing of instruments.) We know that this cannot be the definition used to translate the Apostles' writings. The last definition is, "to sing a hymn, to celebrate the Praises of God in song." This meaning is attributed to the New Testament (all of the writers).

With the definition firmly attached in our mind, we conclude that the word psalmos is properly translated sing. Although not specifically denying the use of instruments by defnition, it most assuredly does not encourage their use as you had previously indicated by relying solely on Strong's definition. Now let us look at Col 3:16,

Col 3:16 Let the word of Christ dwell in you richly in all wisdom; teaching and admonishing one another in psalms and hymns and spiritual songs, singing with grace in your hearts to the Lord.

Knowing the proper definition of psalmos, does it not say simply ". . .sing, making melody in your heart." It is impossible to say that this encourages the use of instruments. To the contrary, if we are to take the scripture at face value, speak where scripture speaks, being silent where the scripture is silent, we can say most assuredly that the scriptures only authorize us to sing, not to play and sing at the same time. Since the scripture leads us to the conclusion that instruments were not thought of in this passage, or any other containing the word psalmos (knowing the proper definition), we would be adding man's own doctrines and wishes by adding instruments to our worship service.

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