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Instruments were used in the Old Testament

Question:

I was reading your article about instrumental music. I find it very interesting. How would you interpret the following verses?


Ps:33:2: Praise the LORD with harp: sing unto him with the psaltery and an instrument of ten strings.

Ps:43:4: Then will I go unto the altar of God, unto God my exceeding joy: yea, upon the harp will I praise thee, O God my God.

Ps:49:4: I will incline mine ear to a parable: I will open my dark saying upon the harp.

Ps:71:22: I will also praise thee with the psaltery, even thy truth, O my God: unto thee will I sing with the harp, O thou Holy One of Israel.

Ps:98:5: Sing unto the LORD with the harp; with the harp, and the voice of a psalm.

Ps:147:7: Sing unto the LORD with thanksgiving; sing praise upon the harp unto our God:

Ps:149:3: Let them praise his name in the dance: let them sing praises unto him with the timbrel and harp.

Ps:150:3: Praise him with the sound of the trumpet: praise him with the psaltery and harp.

Mt:5:17: Think not that I am come to destroy the law, or the prophets: I am not come to destroy, but to fulfil.

(Submitted by email MM on Saturday, August 15, 1998)

Answer: (Given by Bro. Brian Tipton)

Your argument for the inclusion of instrumental music are classic. And unfortunately are classically in error. If you argument for using references from Psalms by quoting Matt. 5:17 is taken to its logical conclusion, the we must not only use instrumental music but must by necessity include all things given to the Israelites under the law. However, if you continue to read Matt 5:17-19,to gain the context of the verse, it says:

(17) Think not that I am come to destroy the law, or the prophets: I am not come to destroy, but to fulfill. (18) For verily I say unto you, Till heaven and earth pass, one jot or one tittle shall in no wise pass from the law, till all be fulfilled. (19) Whosoever therefore shall break one of these least commandments, and shall teach men so, he shall be called the least in the kingdom of heaven: but whosoever shall do and teach them, the same shall be called great in the kingdom of heaven.

We see that none of the Old Testament Law was to pass away until all was fulfilled (verse 18). However, we know from Col. 2:14 that

Blotting out the handwriting of ordinances that was against us, which was contrary to us, and took it out of the way, nailing it to his cross; (Col 2:14)

By taking it out of the way, Christ not only took the sacrifices, the rituals, etc out of the way, but took the entire Law out of the way. We can no longer go to the Old Testament for justification of how we worship God! In fact, the Hebrew writer says in chapter 1, verses 1,2

(1) God, who at sundry times and in divers manners spake in time past unto the fathers by the prophets, (2) Hath in these last days spoken unto us by his Son, whom he hath appointed heir of all things, by whom also he made the worlds;

Also, Mt 17:5, after Christ was transfigured, Peter made the mistake of wanting to set up tabernacles (places of worship) for Moses and Elijah (Matt 17:4). But God corrected him saying,

While he yet spake, behold, a bright cloud overshadowed them: and behold a voice out of the cloud, which said, This is my beloved Son, in whom I am well pleased; hear ye him. (Matt 17:5)

Therefore, we must base our worship on strictly New Testament teachings. So your argument based on the psalms with the misplaced reference to Matt 5:17 to support the inclusion of instrumental music in worship to God in in error.

Be sure to read the context of the verse. Else, we are just wresting the scriptures to our own destruction (2 Peter 3:16)

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